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On the rights of unwilling fathers:
Okay, so here's my question: at what point is a man required to care for a child to whom he is genetically a parent?
Most people (and courts) agree that when a man has intercourse with a woman and a child results, the man bears responsibility for the well-being of the child, often in the form of child-support payments to the mother.
Lets say, however, that the man used a condom, and it functioned properly, but the woman then retrieved the semen from the condom to impregnate herself. What is the father's responsibility?
Another step back: suppose the sexual activity was one in which pregnancy is not possible: oral sex for example. If the woman later uses the semen to impregnate herself, what does the man owe her and the child?
Okay, so here's my question: at what point is a man required to care for a child to whom he is genetically a parent?
Most people (and courts) agree that when a man has intercourse with a woman and a child results, the man bears responsibility for the well-being of the child, often in the form of child-support payments to the mother.
Lets say, however, that the man used a condom, and it functioned properly, but the woman then retrieved the semen from the condom to impregnate herself. What is the father's responsibility?
Another step back: suppose the sexual activity was one in which pregnancy is not possible: oral sex for example. If the woman later uses the semen to impregnate herself, what does the man owe her and the child?